translation – La Vista Church of Christ

Is Revelation 20:10 accurate in the KJV?

January 20, 2022

Question: Hello. Is the King James translation of the Book of Revelation in chapter 20, verse 10 in the same book an error? “And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever…

I’m still confused why Matthew used “Eli” while Mark used “Eloi”

April 10, 2021

Question: Your explanation of the above subject is a bit confusing because we are told that the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew to English while the New Testament was translated from Greek to English. So, I expect them to pick the pronunciation of the same words uttered before translation into English or any other language. Thanks. Answer:…

Does it make a difference that the preposition used for “in the name of” is different in various verses?

March 30, 2021

Question: I have often tried to tell people that “in the name of” in Acts 2:38, means or is “by the authority of.” When I was looking at the Greek, it has the word “epi” in Acts 2:38 for the word “in” which means “on, upon”, and the usage is “on, to, against, on the…

Isn’t the word for “flesh” and “body” the same in I Corinthians 6:16?

October 1, 2020

Question: Hi, You claim in “Immorality”, “Paul proves that sex binds the participants. It is not a permanent or stable bond, but it is a bond nonetheless. Those who engage in sexual sins are physically coupled during the act. They become for the moment one body (the Greek word soma).” This is not true. I Corinthians 6:16…

Why does the ESV remove that God hates divorce in Malachi 2:16?

July 8, 2020

Question: Do you know why in Malachi 2:16 the ESV removes the saying that God hates divorce? Answer: “For the man who does not love his wife but divorces her, says the Lord, the God of Israel, covers his garment with violence, says the Lord of hosts. So guard yourselves in your spirit, and do not be faithless” (Malachi…

What is the “holy thing” in Luke 1:35?

January 23, 2020

Question: Minister, could you explain as clearly as you can what is meant by saying that holy thing which shall be born of thee in Luke 1:35? I think it has something to do with combining the three persons of God together into one. Also, might it be as Paul describes us as the new…

Is “Drink from it, all of you” an accurate translation of Matthew 26:27?

December 21, 2019

Question: Dear Brother, Thank you for your work. I appreciate it a lot. My question is this: in the NIV version, at Matthew 26:27, it says, “Then He took a cup, and when He had given thanks, He gave it to them, saying, Drink from it, all of you.” And in the KJV version, it…

Should it be “for a veil” or “instead of a veil” in I Corinthians 11:15?

November 20, 2019

Question: Thank you for all of your bible study lessons and for all of the hard work you do! Someone told me about the Greek Word: G473 Anti from I Corinthians 11:15 and said that the hair was given to a woman instead of the veil. Can you please explain to me if G473 anti means instead of or…

Why don’t we use Yeshua instead of Jesus?

November 6, 2019

Question: Someone asked me why Yeshua, which is believed to be the real name of Christ, is never used today because of the English translation. Jesus is believed to be a corruption of Yeshua. What is your view on this? Answer: We use “Jesus” because that is the English transliteration of the Greek spelling of…

Isn’t it wrong to use passages from the Kings to help define a word in Job?

July 9, 2014

Question: Dear sir, I happened onto your website in search of a definition of the intent of the word “curse” as used in Job. I do have a question for you. If the book of Job was written before the Levitical priesthood was established, which would explain why Job, himself, made offrerings for his children,…