Posts Tagged ‘translation’
I’m still confused why Matthew used “Eli” while Mark used “Eloi”
Question: Your explanation of the above subject is a bit confusing because we are told that the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew to English while the New Testament was translated from Greek to English. So, I expect them to pick the pronunciation of the same words uttered before translation into English or any other language. Thanks. Answer:…
Read MoreDoes it make a difference that the preposition used for “in the name of” is different in various verses?
Question: I have often tried to tell people that “in the name of” in Acts 2:38, means or is “by the authority of.” When I was looking at the Greek, it has the word “epi” in Acts 2:38 for the word “in” which means “on, upon”, and the usage is “on, to, against, on the…
Read MoreIsn’t the word for “flesh” and “body” the same in I Corinthians 6:16?
Question: Hi, You claim in “Immorality”, “Paul proves that sex binds the participants. It is not a permanent or stable bond, but it is a bond nonetheless. Those who engage in sexual sins are physically coupled during the act. They become for the moment one body (the Greek word soma).” This is not true. I Corinthians 6:16…
Read MoreWhy does the ESV remove that God hates divorce in Malachi 2:16?
Question: Do you know why in Malachi 2:16 the ESV removes the saying that God hates divorce? Answer: “For the man who does not love his wife but divorces her, says the Lord, the God of Israel, covers his garment with violence, says the Lord of hosts. So guard yourselves in your spirit, and do not be faithless” (Malachi…
Read MoreWhat is the “holy thing” in Luke 1:35?
Question: Minister, could you explain as clearly as you can what is meant by saying that holy thing which shall be born of thee in Luke 1:35? I think it has something to do with combining the three persons of God together into one. Also, might it be as Paul describes us as the new…
Read MoreIs “Drink from it, all of you” an accurate translation of Matthew 26:27?
Question: Dear Brother, Thank you for your work. I appreciate it a lot. My question is this: in the NIV version, at Matthew 26:27, it says, “Then He took a cup, and when He had given thanks, He gave it to them, saying, Drink from it, all of you.” And in the KJV version, it…
Read MoreShould it be “for a veil” or “instead of a veil” in I Corinthians 11:15?
Question: Thank you for all of your bible study lessons and for all of the hard work you do! Someone told me about the Greek Word: G473 Anti from I Corinthians 11:15 and said that the hair was given to a woman instead of the veil. Can you please explain to me if G473 anti means instead of or…
Read MoreWhy don’t we use Yeshua instead of Jesus?
Question: Someone asked me why Yeshua, which is believed to be the real name of Christ, is never used today because of the English translation. Jesus is believed to be a corruption of Yeshua. What is your view on this? Answer: We use “Jesus” because that is the English transliteration of the Greek spelling of…
Read MoreShould it be “should bow” or “will bow” in Philippians 2:10?
Question: Philippians 2:10 says that every knee “should” bow. I have misquoted that several times and I have heard others do the same, by saying that every knee “will” bow. What, in your understanding, is the text teaching? Answer: It is rendered “will bow” in the NASB, but reading my Greek books it looks like…
Read MoreIs “virgin” really the best translation in Isaiah 7:14?
Question: In your article, you said that the RSV mistranslated Isaiah 7:14 by changing “virgin” to “young woman.” My Baptist College and Career group visited our city synagogue and the rabbi told us that the Hebrew word in Isaiah 7:14 meant and is translated as a young maiden and not virgin. The Gospel writers’ testimony was…
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