Posts Tagged ‘translation’
Isn’t the word for “flesh” and “body” the same in I Corinthians 6:16?
Question: Hi, You claim in “Immorality”, “Paul proves that sex binds the participants. It is not a permanent or stable bond, but it is a bond nonetheless. Those who engage in sexual sins are physically coupled during the act. They become for the moment one body (the Greek word soma).” This is not true. I Corinthians 6:16…
Read MoreWhy does the ESV remove that God hates divorce in Malachi 2:16?
Question: Do you know why in Malachi 2:16 the ESV removes the saying that God hates divorce? Answer: “For the man who does not love his wife but divorces her, says the Lord, the God of Israel, covers his garment with violence, says the Lord of hosts. So guard yourselves in your spirit, and do not be faithless” (Malachi…
Read MoreWhat is the “holy thing” in Luke 1:35?
Question: Minister, could you explain as clearly as you can what is meant by saying that holy thing which shall be born of thee in Luke 1:35? I think it has something to do with combining the three persons of God together into one. Also, might it be as Paul describes us as the new…
Read MoreIs “Drink from it, all of you” an accurate translation of Matthew 26:27?
Question: Dear Brother, Thank you for your work. I appreciate it a lot. My question is this: in the NIV version, at Matthew 26:27, it says, “Then He took a cup, and when He had given thanks, He gave it to them, saying, Drink from it, all of you.” And in the KJV version, it…
Read MoreShould it be “for a veil” or “instead of a veil” in I Corinthians 11:15?
Question: Thank you for all of your bible study lessons and for all of the hard work you do! Someone told me about the Greek Word: G473 Anti from I Corinthians 11:15 and said that the hair was given to a woman instead of the veil. Can you please explain to me if G473 anti means instead of or…
Read MoreWhy don’t we use Yeshua instead of Jesus?
Question: Someone asked me why Yeshua, which is believed to be the real name of Christ, is never used today because of the English translation. Jesus is believed to be a corruption of Yeshua. What is your view on this? Answer: We use “Jesus” because that is the English transliteration of the Greek spelling of…
Read MoreWhy does Thayer say that “world” can mean “believers only?”
Question: I have a question regarding an entry in Thayer’s Greek Lexicon that is concerning the meaning of the word “world” in John 3:16 and other passages. I submit the following entry from the Lexicon: As one of the definitions for the Greek word kosmos for “world,” it gives the following: “8b) of believers only, John 1:29;…
Read MoreWhat is meant by “although the enemy could not countervail the king’s damage”?
Question: In Esther 7:4, it reads: “For we are sold, I and my people, to be destroyed, to be slain, and to perish. But if we had been sold for bondmen and bondwomen, I had held my tongue, although the enemy could not countervail the king’s damage.” What did Esther mean when she said “although the enemy could not…
Read MoreIn Mark 3:29, why does the NKJV say “eternal condemnation” while the NASB says “eternal sin?”
Question: The NKJV in Mark 3:29 has “but is subject to eternal condemnation” and the NASB has is “guilty of an eternal sin”. Are the meanings different? They seem to mean something different. Isn’t the NASB more accurate to the original than the NKJV? Answer: Both the NASB and the NKJV are accurate translations. However,…
Read MoreIs it “away from the presence of the Lord” or “coming from the presence of the Lord” in II Thessalonians 1:9?
Question: Like always, I have a question. In II Thessalonians 1:9 it has a commentary on the bottom. The verse says, “They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might,” then in the footnotes, I found in my Bible and on Blue Letter…
Read More