Posts Tagged ‘translation’
How should the end of Acts 20:28 read?
Question: Dear Jeffrey, I re-visited the La Vista Church web page on the accuracy of the New World Translation and read the following: J. Acts 20:28 1. “Pay attention to yourselves and to all the flock, among which the holy spirit has appointed you overseers, to shepherd the congregation of God, which he purchased with the blood of…
Read MoreIsn’t there a textual variation in II Peter 3:10?
Question: Dear Sirs. I have read your Web page critiquing the NWT of Jehovah’s Witnesses. Very interesting. May I just address just one of the scripture places you examined, namely II Peter 3:10? It seems you think the NWT mistranslates it here. But they did not as the verb they translated, which appears in the…
Read MoreIs Romans 8:35 about our love for Christ or Christ’s love for us?
Question: Hello, I am going over some studies on the Perseverance of the Saints. I came across one site that stated Romans 8:35 was talking of our love for God and not His love for us. Do you have any insights on this? Answer: In the Greek text, “from the love of Christ” (apo…
Read MoreIf you knew Hebrew, you would see more than what is stated in the translations
Question: In reference to Is “Christian” supposed to be “natsarim”? “Your friend likes to think of himself as superior because he knows a little bit of Hebrew. As you noted, the Bible proves his various positions wrong. Knowledge of God’s teaching does not require knowing Hebrew or Greek. You can understand what God said by reading…
Read MoreIs it “end of the world” or “end of the age”?
Question: Hello, My son has fallen into the web of denominational teachings, including some off-the-wall organizations with the typical anything-goes philosophies, premillennialism, rapture, etc. He and I have finally begun to discuss the truth with the myths he believes. I have sent him several of your articles on the “End of Times, Rapture, etc” he…
Read MoreWhy is Romans 5:13-17 in parenthesis?
Question: Hi, Your article Are Non-Christians Subject to the Laws of God? seems to prove the point, with one possible problem. It relies heavily on Romans 5:13-16, which is in parentheses (KJV and NKJV) which several authorities say indicates it was probably inserted by translators. Is this true? If so, does not that present a…
Read MoreI think you misused some verses in “Careful What You Say”
Question: This is something I think can be especially difficult among the churches of Christ just because of our tradition. There is a very popular way of reading the Bible in the churches of Christ that goes way back to our roots and the reasoning is that a belief or practice can only be authorized…
Read MoreIs Revelation 20:10 accurate in the KJV?
Question: Hello. Is the King James translation of the Book of Revelation in chapter 20, verse 10 in the same book an error? “And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever…
Read MoreI’m still confused why Matthew used “Eli” while Mark used “Eloi”
Question: Your explanation of the above subject is a bit confusing because we are told that the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew to English while the New Testament was translated from Greek to English. So, I expect them to pick the pronunciation of the same words uttered before translation into English or any other language. Thanks. Answer:…
Read MoreDoes it make a difference that the preposition used for “in the name of” is different in various verses?
Question: I have often tried to tell people that “in the name of” in Acts 2:38, means or is “by the authority of.” When I was looking at the Greek, it has the word “epi” in Acts 2:38 for the word “in” which means “on, upon”, and the usage is “on, to, against, on the…
Read MoreIsn’t the word for “flesh” and “body” the same in I Corinthians 6:16?
Question: Hi, You claim in “Immorality”, “Paul proves that sex binds the participants. It is not a permanent or stable bond, but it is a bond nonetheless. Those who engage in sexual sins are physically coupled during the act. They become for the moment one body (the Greek word soma).” This is not true. I Corinthians 6:16…
Read MoreWhy does the ESV remove that God hates divorce in Malachi 2:16?
Question: Do you know why in Malachi 2:16 the ESV removes the saying that God hates divorce? Answer: “For the man who does not love his wife but divorces her, says the Lord, the God of Israel, covers his garment with violence, says the Lord of hosts. So guard yourselves in your spirit, and do not be faithless” (Malachi…
Read MoreWhat is the “holy thing” in Luke 1:35?
Question: Minister, could you explain as clearly as you can what is meant by saying that holy thing which shall be born of thee in Luke 1:35? I think it has something to do with combining the three persons of God together into one. Also, might it be as Paul describes us as the new…
Read MoreIs “Drink from it, all of you” an accurate translation of Matthew 26:27?
Question: Dear Brother, Thank you for your work. I appreciate it a lot. My question is this: in the NIV version, at Matthew 26:27, it says, “Then He took a cup, and when He had given thanks, He gave it to them, saying, Drink from it, all of you.” And in the KJV version, it…
Read MoreShould it be “for a veil” or “instead of a veil” in I Corinthians 11:15?
Question: Thank you for all of your bible study lessons and for all of the hard work you do! Someone told me about the Greek Word: G473 Anti from I Corinthians 11:15 and said that the hair was given to a woman instead of the veil. Can you please explain to me if G473 anti means instead of or…
Read MoreWhy don’t we use Yeshua instead of Jesus?
Question: Someone asked me why Yeshua, which is believed to be the real name of Christ, is never used today because of the English translation. Jesus is believed to be a corruption of Yeshua. What is your view on this? Answer: We use “Jesus” because that is the English transliteration of the Greek spelling of…
Read MoreIs it supposed to be brothers or brothers and sisters?
Question: Hi Jeff, In Acts 6:3, some translations say brethren, some say brothers, and some say brothers and sisters. Which one is correct? Did the men of the congregation choose the seven or was it the whole congregation? Thank you. Answer: Like many languages, the male gender of words is used when talking about a…
Read MoreIs it tempt or try?
Question: In Matthew 4:7, it seems to say something different in two translations. The ESV: Jesus said to him, “Again it is written, ‘You shall not put the Lord your God to the test.'” The NKJV: Jesus said to him, “It is written again, ‘You shall not tempt the Lord your God.'” Which translation is…
Read MoreI’m Not a Scholar, But …
by Doy Moyer It’s interesting to me how we sometimes couch our arguments with disclaimers that may end up casting doubt upon the very arguments we are trying to make. I tend to get a little suspicious of the argument when someone starts that way (including my own). Now that doesn’t necessarily mean that the…
Read MoreIsn’t it wrong to use passages from the Kings to help define a word in Job?
Question: Dear sir, I happened onto your website in search of a definition of the intent of the word “curse” as used in Job. I do have a question for you. If the book of Job was written before the Levitical priesthood was established, which would explain why Job, himself, made offrerings for his children,…
Read MoreDoesn’t Acts 12:4 mention Easter?
Question: A question I have is in Acts 12:4. What’s was the Scripture pertaining to when it mentioned Easter? “And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people” (Acts 12:4 KJV). Answer:…
Read MoreWhy are there random italic words in my Bible?
Question: So what is with these random italics in passages? Example: “And those members of the body, which we think to be less honorable, upon these we bestow more abundant honor; and our uncomely parts have more abundant comeliness.” It’s everywhere. Random words emphasized for what reason? This one: “Let their table become a snare before them:…
Read MoreWhy did the translators add “brother” to II Samuel 21:19?
Question: Nearly everyone is familiar with the account in I Samuel 17 and how David killed Goliath. The King James Version in II Samuel 21:19 says Elhanan killed Goliath’s brother, but the Hebrew text says it was Goliath who was slain. How did the translators deduce this was Goliath’s brother, or is there a better explanation…
Read MoreWhy are Acts 2:16-21 and Joel 2:28-32 not word for word the same?
Question: Read Joel 2:28-32. After reading the verse check Peter’s quote in Acts 2:16-21. Does this mean Peter is not quoting Joel if he is not using the exact words of the prophet? Answer: Joel is written in Hebrew which is then translated into English. Peter quotes Joel in Greek, which is then translated into…
Read MoreShould it be “faith” or “the faith” in Ephesians 2:8 and Colossians 2:12?
Question: Greetings brother Hamilton, I am perplexed as to what the later part of Colossians 2:12 means, “Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye have risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.” Does this part of the scripture mean our subjective faith in…
Read MoreIs it wrong to use “Allah” for God in Malaysian Bibles?
Question: Greetings, With the general election just around the corner here in Malaysia, many issues are being used as fodder including the issue of the use of the Arabic word for God in Malay translation of the Bible being used among native congregations. While this is not prohibited by any existing laws, the same issue…
Read MoreWhy is the sky referred to as “heavens” in Genesis 1:6-8?
Question: Hello, I am currently bust with a Bible study of Genesis and I am confused about something. In Genesis God said: “Let there be a space between the waters, to separate the waters of the heavens from the waters of the earth”. If the first heaven is the atmosphere i.e the sky. Then why…
Read MoreWhy is apeitheo in John 3:36 translated “not obey” in some versions and “not believe” in others?
Question: Something interesting that I came across last week in studying: John 3:36 is a commonly quoted scripture. The KJV, NKJV, and Youngs roughly say: “He who believes (pisteuo) in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe (apeitheo) the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on…
Read MoreShould it be “should bow” or “will bow” in Philippians 2:10?
Question: Philippians 2:10 says that every knee “should” bow. I have misquoted that several times and I have heard others do the same, by saying that every knee “will” bow. What, in your understanding, is the text teaching? Answer: It is rendered “will bow” in the NASB, but reading my Greek books it looks like…
Read MoreIs “virgin” really the best translation in Isaiah 7:14?
Question: In your article, you said that the RSV mistranslated Isaiah 7:14 by changing “virgin” to “young woman.” My Baptist College and Career group visited our city synagogue and the rabbi told us that the Hebrew word in Isaiah 7:14 meant and is translated as a young maiden and not virgin. The Gospel writers’ testimony was…
Read MoreWas Matthew only clarifying what Jesus said on the Cross?
Question: In Was Matthew originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic? you stated: This verse is one of several in Matthew which shows that Matthew was originally written in Greek. You see, if it was written in Hebrew or Aramaic as has been recently popular to claim, there would be no need to explain Hebrew or Aramaic phrases.…
Read MoreIn John 3:36, should it be “does not obey” or “does not believe”?
Question: I was linking one of my web sites to “How does obedience relate to saving faith?” which has some excellent info. “He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him” (John 3:36 NASB). I am wondering about this Scripture…
Read MoreWhy do some translations give opposite meanings to Esau’s blessing in Genesis 27:39?
Question: In the King James Version Genesis 27:39 reads “And Isaac his father answered and said unto him, Behold, thy dwelling shall be the fatness of the earth, and of the dew of heaven from above”; and some other translations such as NKJV, ASV, ERV seem to have the same meaning for this verse. However,…
Read MoreWhy does Thayer say that “world” can mean “believers only?”
Question: I have a question regarding an entry in Thayer’s Greek Lexicon that is concerning the meaning of the word “world” in John 3:16 and other passages. I submit the following entry from the Lexicon: As one of the definitions for the Greek word kosmos for “world,” it gives the following: “8b) of believers only, John 1:29;…
Read MoreWhat is meant by “although the enemy could not countervail the king’s damage”?
Question: In Esther 7:4, it reads: “For we are sold, I and my people, to be destroyed, to be slain, and to perish. But if we had been sold for bondmen and bondwomen, I had held my tongue, although the enemy could not countervail the king’s damage.” What did Esther mean when she said “although the enemy could not…
Read MoreIn Mark 3:29, why does the NKJV say “eternal condemnation” while the NASB says “eternal sin?”
Question: The NKJV in Mark 3:29 has “but is subject to eternal condemnation” and the NASB has is “guilty of an eternal sin”. Are the meanings different? They seem to mean something different. Isn’t the NASB more accurate to the original than the NKJV? Answer: Both the NASB and the NKJV are accurate translations. However,…
Read MoreIs it “away from the presence of the Lord” or “coming from the presence of the Lord” in II Thessalonians 1:9?
Question: Like always, I have a question. In II Thessalonians 1:9 it has a commentary on the bottom. The verse says, “They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might,” then in the footnotes, I found in my Bible and on Blue Letter…
Read MoreDo you have sources showing that oinos and yayin can mean both fermented and unfermented drinks?
Question: Our Baptist church is considering the elimination of the statement in the church covenant that states, “do not use or sell any alcoholic beverage”. Obviously, this is to condone moderate drinking. The basis for this is Romans 14:21. The pastor has a lexicon that shows all wine as written in the Bible means fermented. …
Read MoreMy research says that Matthew mistranslated “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?”
Question: I am sorry I am going to have to agree with the guy who questioned you on “Could Jesus have said “My God, my God, for this I was kept?”. Yeshua, the Son of God, AKA Jesus Christos, Jesus Christ spoke Aramaic and while Matthew was a Greek scholar, he merely recorded the words of…
Read MoreWhy is the Hebrew word for “bless” in Job 1:5 translated as “curse?”
Question: My Bible has a footnote on Job 1:5 that says the word “curse” in this passage is actually the Hebrew word for “bless.” I don’t understand this. Answer: “So it was, when the days of feasting had run their course, that Job would send and sanctify them, and he would rise early in the…
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