Your article Are Non-Christians Subject to the Laws of God? seems to prove the point, with one possible problem. It relies heavily on Romans 5:13-16, which is in parentheses (KJV and NKJV) which several authorities say indicates it was probably inserted by translators. Is this true? If so, does not that present a problem with this theory? Are there other scriptures that substantiate what these verses teach?
I checked the textual evidence. Romans 5:13-17 is not disputed in the least. The parentheses are there to indicate that the topic is a side comment to the main argument that Paul is making. Paul is the one who made the side comments. Translators did not insert these verses. By the way, other translations indicate the branch in thought with a long hyphen ("--").
In regards to the arguments I presented, Romans 5:13-17 is only used in one section of the outline. It wasn't used as the whole of the argument.
Basically, what I gather is that you don't like the obvious conclusion that Paul's comments reach; therefore, you prefer to dismiss the evidence and claim that what Paul said was not from God. As Paul said elsewhere, "Was it from you that the word of God first went forth? Or has it come to you only? If anyone thinks he is a prophet or spiritual, let him recognize that the things which I write to you are the Lord's commandment. But if anyone does not recognize this, he is not recognized" (I Corinthians 14:36-38).
Paul made the same point made in Romans 5;13 in Romans 4:15 and I Corinthians 15:56. The point made in Romans 5:14 is roughly repeated in Romans 5:21. The point made in Romans 5:12 is also made in Romans 3:23 and I John 1:8-21.