Posts Tagged ‘grammar’
So That
by Doy Moyer Have you noticed how often the purpose of something is stated? This is often done by using the term ἵνα in the New Testament (often translated as “that” or “so that”), which is meant to denote purpose. It’s used quite a lot, and I believe we ought to pay attention to it…
Read MoreDoes the grammar of Acts 2:38 mean that the gift of the Holy Spirit can’t be salvation?
Question: I believe the gift and promise of the Holy Spirit is salvation, but a brother in Christ has told me it cannot be, due to the Greek grammar of “shall receive” in verse 38 having “middle voice future tense”. He believes salvation cannot be the gift since the gift is future tense middle voice,…
Read MoreWhy are singular pronouns and plural pronouns used in reference to God?
Question: Blessed day. In my discussion with the Unitarian Church, I used Genesis 1:26 to prove that God is not only one person. They ask me if God in Genesis 1:26 is in the plural form then why is it, in Genesis 1:27, there is only one God who created man? They used the verb…
Read MoreHow many streets are in Revelation 21:21?
Question: In Revelations 21:21, is it correctly written as “street” or “streets” as other translations say? Is it more than one? Thanks Answer: The phrasing in Greek is for a single street.
Read MoreIs “If a man dies, shall he live again” a question or a statement?
Question: “If a man dies, shall he live again …” Is that a question or a statement? Thanks. Answer: “For there is hope for a tree, when it is cut down, that it will sprout again, and its shoots will not fail. Though its roots grow old in the ground and its stump dies in…
Read MoreCould Titus 1:5-6 be a “plural of class” case?
Question: Hello, I have been diligently studying the qualifications for Elders. I recently stumbled upon a discussion regarding the use of tekna. In one of your articles, you stated the exception of “plural of class” using widows in I Timothy 5. You stated that I Timothy 3 and Titus 1 show no indication of the plural of class…
Read MoreI’m Not a Scholar, But …
by Doy Moyer It’s interesting to me how we sometimes couch our arguments with disclaimers that may end up casting doubt upon the very arguments we are trying to make. I tend to get a little suspicious of the argument when someone starts that way (including my own). Now that doesn’t necessarily mean that the…
Read MoreCan deacons have multiple wives and homes?
Question: I was wondering if polygamy is wrong because a Christan polygamy site states this: “mia doesn’t mean one, it means first in I Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6” Regarding idios they are saying “The word “idios” signifies actual or potential corporate possession, or “ownership” (although sometimes the two words may be synonymous, the change up in this verse is…
Read MoreIs your definition of tekna consistent?
Question: In light of the position you take with regard to Elders and the number of children they should have, I would like to know your thoughts with regard to the following scriptures. We are in the process of studying deacons and elders at the congregation I attend, and I am trying to further prepare for…
Read MoreDoes the fact that “blasphemed” is in the aorist tense make a difference?
Question: Hello, I have looked at Luke 12:10 in Greek. I have been trouble by this because “blasphemed” appears to be in that past tense in English and in Young’s Literal Translation of the Bible. In Greek, the tense is Aorist participle. I am not sure exactly what that means. In Mark 3:29 and Matthew…
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