Why did God say the woman’s desire would be for her husband when men seem to have the stronger sexual desire for the woman?


One thing I have never understood is that God told Eve, the woman, that her desire would be for her husband, Adam, the man. Yet, it is a man's desire for a woman -- physically, romantically, and sexually -- that has always been much stronger than a woman's is for a man. As evidenced by husbands, in general, wanting and needing to have sex more frequently than the wife does.


When God said, "Your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you" (Genesis 3:16), the type of desire that God was discussing was not a sexual desire because the consequence of her desire for her husband was that he would rule over her. Thus, what God was saying is that the natural inclination of women would be to submit to their husbands. Yes, I know women who fight against this inclination. I also notice that they tend to be unhappy women.

By the way, the same phrase is used in Genesis 4:7 where it is clearly not talking about a sexual desire.

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