Posts Tagged ‘Greek Language’
What is the difference between the Greek words “moros” and “anoetos?”
Question: What is the difference between the Greek words “moros” and “ancestors?” Answer: Moros is an adjective that describes someone acting foolishly or without thinking, especially about moral decisions or righteous behavior; thus, it implies godless behavior, but not always. It can also refer to someone with relatively less intelligence or a lack of wisdom. In…
Read MoreDoing Good to All Men?
by Perry Hall The word “good/agathos” is only used twice in Galatians, both within the same pericope. This is important because of the misuse of Galatians 6:10. That misuse is cited for church financial support of both needy saints and those who are not saints. The common argument against this view is that Galatians 6:10…
Read MoreBut What Does It Say in the Greek?
by Terry Wane Benton I find it interesting that people sometimes think they can somehow over-rule the English translation of a verse by saying, “But what does it say in the Greek?” What? Do you want me to say it in Greek? How would that help? I speak English! You understand only English. The translators…
Read More“Because Of” or “Into”?
by Terry Wane Benton The Argument: “In addition to Acts 2:38, there are three other verses where the Greek word eis is used in conjunction with the word “baptize” or “baptism.” The first of these is Matthew 3:11, “baptize you with water for repentance.” Clearly the Greek word eis cannot mean “in order to get”…
Read MoreFor (eis) the Remission of Sins
by Terry Wane Benton It is argued by some that “for” the remission of sins, as used in Acts 2:38, should be understood to mean “because of” the remission of sins you already have. They say it is like we use the term when saying, “Take some ibuprofen for your headache.” In that case, “for”…
Read MoreIt’s in the Greek
by Greg Gwin As we study and discuss the New Testament there is sometimes a reference made to things that are contained in the original language. Someone will mention that “the Greek says” this or that. It’s not a bad thing to try to understand something about the meaning of words as used by the…
Read MoreSo That
by Doy Moyer Have you noticed how often the purpose of something is stated? This is often done by using the term ἵνα in the New Testament (often translated as “that” or “so that”), which is meant to denote purpose. It’s used quite a lot, and I believe we ought to pay attention to it…
Read MoreIs it “end of the world” or “end of the age”?
Question: Hello, My son has fallen into the web of denominational teachings, including some off-the-wall organizations with the typical anything-goes philosophies, premillennialism, rapture, etc. He and I have finally begun to discuss the truth with the myths he believes. I have sent him several of your articles on the “End of Times, Rapture, etc” he…
Read MoreI think you misused some verses in “Careful What You Say”
Question: This is something I think can be especially difficult among the churches of Christ just because of our tradition. There is a very popular way of reading the Bible in the churches of Christ that goes way back to our roots and the reasoning is that a belief or practice can only be authorized…
Read MoreDoes the grammar of Acts 2:38 mean that the gift of the Holy Spirit can’t be salvation?
Question: I believe the gift and promise of the Holy Spirit is salvation, but a brother in Christ has told me it cannot be, due to the Greek grammar of “shall receive” in verse 38 having “middle voice future tense”. He believes salvation cannot be the gift since the gift is future tense middle voice,…
Read MoreThank you for your well-done reply to “The New Testament was written in Hebrew, not Greek”
Question: Thank you for your biblical reply on your website in “The New Testament was written in Hebrew, not Greek!”. Well done! It’s encouraging that your church focuses on feeding the spiritually malnourished American flock. Answer: We’re glad to be of service to others.
Read MoreHow many streets are in Revelation 21:21?
Question: In Revelations 21:21, is it correctly written as “street” or “streets” as other translations say? Is it more than one? Thanks Answer: The phrasing in Greek is for a single street.
Read MoreDoes it make a difference that the preposition used for “in the name of” is different in various verses?
Question: I have often tried to tell people that “in the name of” in Acts 2:38, means or is “by the authority of.” When I was looking at the Greek, it has the word “epi” in Acts 2:38 for the word “in” which means “on, upon”, and the usage is “on, to, against, on the…
Read MoreDoes “permit” imply that the command is conditional or temporary in nature?
Question: We’ve been told that the Greek word (epitrepo) that Paul used, in both I Timothy 2:12 and I Corinthians 14:34, indicate that his instruction was conditional or temporary in nature. We were then told that he could have used a stronger word such as ‘forbid’. Is there a distinction between how it was applied…
Read MoreI appreciate your consistent quality of answers to questions
Question: Brothers, I appreciate your consistent quality of answers to questions. Saturday, I searched Google for “Is Teknon in Titus 1:6 singular or plural?” The top result was La Vista Church of Christ. My brothers with simple, easy-to-understand answers at the top of Google’s list. It brings me joy (and a bit of envy –…
Read MoreCould Titus 1:5-6 be a “plural of class” case?
Question: Hello, I have been diligently studying the qualifications for Elders. I recently stumbled upon a discussion regarding the use of tekna. In one of your articles, you stated the exception of “plural of class” using widows in I Timothy 5. You stated that I Timothy 3 and Titus 1 show no indication of the plural of class…
Read MoreWhy does my source say teknon instead of tekna in I Timothy 3:4?
Question: Good afternoon, Thank you for your labor and articles. Recently my brother sent me this article: Must elders have more than one child? In this article, you state: “The Greek word in both I Timothy 3:4 and in Titus 1:6 is tekna.” I follow the logic, but when I checked (according to my software), the Greek…
Read MoreWhoever wrote the “eis” article on your website did an excellent job of presenting the material.
Question: Whoever wrote the “eis” article on your website did an excellent job of presenting the material. Answer: Thank you.
Read MoreIs being implacable condemned?
Question: Is being implacable condemned in Romans 1:31? “Without understanding, covenantbreakers, without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful” (Romans 1:31, KJV) “Without understanding, covenant-breakers, without natural affection, unmerciful” (Romans 1:31, ASV) Thanks for your time. Answer: The Greek word aspondous (irreconcilable) doesn’t appear in all the manuscripts. Because it also appears in a similar list in II Timothy…
Read MoreYour information on the New Testament not being originally written in Hebrew helped me defend the truth
Question: Thank you so much for your article on Yeshua Messianic groups regarding a Hebrew New Testament. Just yesterday I had an interaction with a person from such a group. I am very much blessed and found the answers to defend against these false Yeshua groups. Once again thank you so much. Answer: I’m glad you found the…
Read MoreWhat language was the New Testament written in?
Question: What is the real Greek of the New Testament? Koine Greek or Aramaic? Wikipedia says suggests it is Aramaic Greek, but I was taught it was Koine Greek but you can find many websites that say it was Koine Greek, this has become very confusing to me. Which is correct? What language did Jesus…
Read MoreShould it be “faith” or “the faith” in Ephesians 2:8 and Colossians 2:12?
Question: Greetings brother Hamilton, I am perplexed as to what the later part of Colossians 2:12 means, “Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye have risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.” Does this part of the scripture mean our subjective faith in…
Read MoreWhy is apeitheo in John 3:36 translated “not obey” in some versions and “not believe” in others?
Question: Something interesting that I came across last week in studying: John 3:36 is a commonly quoted scripture. The KJV, NKJV, and Youngs roughly say: “He who believes (pisteuo) in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe (apeitheo) the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on…
Read MoreIs your definition of tekna consistent?
Question: In light of the position you take with regard to Elders and the number of children they should have, I would like to know your thoughts with regard to the following scriptures. We are in the process of studying deacons and elders at the congregation I attend, and I am trying to further prepare for…
Read MoreDoes the fact that “blasphemed” is in the aorist tense make a difference?
Question: Hello, I have looked at Luke 12:10 in Greek. I have been trouble by this because “blasphemed” appears to be in that past tense in English and in Young’s Literal Translation of the Bible. In Greek, the tense is Aorist participle. I am not sure exactly what that means. In Mark 3:29 and Matthew…
Read MoreWhat is the difference between proskollaomai and kollao?
Question: Is there a difference between “proskollethesetai” vs. “kollomenos”? The first one is in Ephesians 5:31 and the second is I Corinthians 6:16. Answer: The root word is kollao, which means “to glue or cement together.” Proskollaomai is related to kollao. The prefix pros means “to” or “toward” but doesn’t change the meaning of the root. It just makes…
Read MoreDid biblical Greek have a “v” sound?
Question: In Understanding the Tetragrammaton: “Greek has no “h” save rough breathings at the beginnings of some words and does not account for the letter; Greek has neither “w” nor “v,” and it is very likely that a Greek listener (as were Theodoret and Epiphanius) would hear a “b” when a Jew said “v”” The Greek…
Read MoreWhat is included in porneia?
Question: Hi! I have been studying sex and the Bible. What I am really confused about is that the Bible does not mention oral sex or mutual masturbation. It only mentions anal sex and vaginal sex. Thus, how are oral sex and mutual masturbation a sin? How is it sexual intercourse? In Greek, porneia means…
Read MoreIs the antecedent of “it” “church” or “rock” in Matthew 16:19?
Question: A little help, please. Where Matthew records; “….and the gates of Hades shall not prevail against it.” What is the “it” referring to? I have heard some say it was the “church.” Others, that it was the “rock,” Christ. According to your studies of the Greek definition, what is the “it”? Answer: In Greek, a…
Read MoreHow can I tell when a word in the New Testament actually has an article in front of it?
Question: I don’t know how to begin without being wordy, so here goes. How do you know when the definite article (the) is in front of a word in Greek? I have the Online Bible program that has Strongs in its King James Version. I was wanting to check more on a speaker and how…
Read MoreIt’s Greek To Me
by Roger Blackwelder Some questions were raised recently about the value of having a knowledge of New Testament Greek. Some have used arguments based on the translations of words to authorize immorality that the Bible clearly condemns. This usage of Greek is disturbing; it casts a shadow on an otherwise beneficial field of study. I…
Read MoreGreek, How Should a Knowledge of It be Viewed?
by Don Martin We do not have the original New Testament today, but manuscripts that have come down to us, copies of the original writings. What we have today is a translation or, to be more precise, about seventy extant English translations of the Greek texts. Some preachers and Christians today possess varying degrees of…
Read MoreWhat about the argument that “for the remission of your sins” is plural and refers back to repentance in Acts 2:38?
Question: Hello again. An argument that I have addressed with my friend, but I thought you might like, is about baptism. The argument is that if it says in Acts 2:38 “for the remission of your sins” instead of “for the remission of sins” then it is personal and it is referring back to repent…
Read MoreMust a preacher teach from the Greek and Hebrew text?
Question: I would like you to answer a question for me. There’s a person here in our city teaching from his basement or another room he has rented. He teaches Greek and Hebrew lessons and he also appears on TV. This person teaches that if your pastor isn’t teaching from the Greek or Hebrew Bible,…
Read MoreAre there passages that refer to THE Lord’s Supper?
Question: We have been studying the Lord’s supper issues and one of our main concerns is about a second offering in which only a few partake, for the reasons you listed in your article (not doing it together). We have been questioning the idea of everyone taking it a second time. We have been cautious…
Read More