How can marrying a divorced woman be ongoing adultery?
Question:
In Matthew 19:9, "commits adultery" is used twice in this verse. The first time, concerning the husband, it is in the present tense. Now, the present tense does not always mean ongoing action. The context must determine that.
The second time, concerning the wife, it is in the aorist tense. Aorist tense never is ongoing.
If we follow the correct grammatical rules, then how could the present tense be ongoing? How could it be ongoing for the husband and not the wife?
Thank you.
Answer:
I'm sorry, but in Matthew 19:9, "commits adultery" in both cases is in the third person, indicative, present tense, middle voice.
Question:
Thank you. I’ll come back to Matthew 19 concerning the woman.
Let’s look at the parallel verse in Matthew 5:32. The phrase "causes her to commit adultery" here is in the aorist tense. This is an absolute. This leaves no doubt that Christ meant that it was not ongoing.
The present tense in Matthew 19 concerning the woman must be understood as if it were in the aorist tense; that is, it’s not ongoing. If not, then why not?
Thank you.
P.S. Christ gave this message to a group of people in Matthew 5 and then traveled approximately 80 miles and told a different group of people the same thing. So if it’s not ongoing in chapter 5, then it must not be ongoing in chapter 19. Otherwise, we have a contradiction.
Answer:
While "shall divorce" in Matthew 5:32 is in the aorist tense, both "to commit adultery" phrases are in the present infinitive middle tense.
"The aorist is in the indefinite tense that states only the fact of the action without specifying the duration." [William Mounce, Basics of Biblical Greek].
"The aorist indicates an undefined action usually occurring in the past." [ibid.]
"Undefined" means you cannot make any conclusion about whether the action is ongoing or not. It is undefined. However, this only applies to the divorce (Matthew 5:32). It only states that a divorce occurred in the past. It tells us nothing about the adultery that led to the divorce or the adultery that occurs after the divorce due to a remarriage.
Question:
Thank you.
In Matthew 5:32, in the phrase "Whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery," the Greek word for "commits adultery" is moicheuo, and it’s in the aorist tense, and the action is punctiliar.
How do we get ongoing action from an aorist tense and a punctiliar action?
Thank you.
Answer:
Not every question can be answered from the grammar found in a single verse.
"But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery" (Matthew 5:32).
"Everyone who divorces his wife": The verb is in the third-person, subjunctive, aorist, active tense. This means that the divorce happened sometime, most likely in the past. It is not saying that the divorce is ongoing. It should be noted that there is a textual variation that has "divorce" as a present participle, meaning that the person is currently divorced.
"causes her to commit adultery": This is in the present tense with middle voice, indicating that it is a current (ongoing) problem that is affecting both parties. Again, there is a textual variation that has "commit adultery" in the passive aorist tense. If this is the correct verb form, the "causes" is still in the present tense (ongoing), but the adultery started in the past. You cannot conclude from "commit adultery" alone whether the problem continues or not. It is undefined in the aorist tense. However, because it is connected to "causes," that verb does fill in the missing information.
"marries": The verb is in the subjunctive, aorist, active tense. The marriage occurred sometime in the past or present, but it doesn't indicate whether it is currently ongoing or not.
"a divorced woman": "Divorced" is a perfect participle in the middle voice. It is the woman's current state, and the divorce affects both parties.
"commits adultery": This is again in the present tense, middle voice. There is no textual variation here. It is ongoing, and it impacts both parties.
"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery" (Matthew 19:9).
As in Matthew 5:32, the "commits adultery" is in the present tense, middle voice in both occurrences. It is a current (ongoing) situation that affects both parties.
"For the married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is living; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband. So then, if while her husband is living she is joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is not an adulteress though she is joined to another man" (Romans 7:2-3).
Paul makes it very clear that a woman who is still bound by her covenant (law) to her husband and marries another is an adulteress (an ongoing state) as long as her original husband lives. Her marriage to another man does not override or nullify her covenant.
None of the passages contradict each other. They all point to the same issue. Your conclusion that Jesus said it was not ongoing in Matthew 5:32 is without textual support.
