I've been concerned lately after reading about pagan practices. Why was the Lord's Supper changed from the first-century practice of it being part of a meal?


We start out with a problem. In order for something to have been changed, you must first prove that it was done differently. Claiming that the Lord's Supper was originally a part of a common meal isn't proof. Instead, I can prove from I Corinthians 11 that the Lord's Supper was separate from common meals. See What do you think about partaking of the Lord's Supper after dinner? In this answer, I addressed the passages typically used to justify making the Lord's Supper a part of a common meal and show that the passages are being misused.

Why you claim this imaginary change was connected to pagan practices, I don't know. In my reading of history, I find that many pagans used meals to celebrate their gods.

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