I have a quick question. Is my understanding correct in saying that in Amos 8:5 the question is asked when will the Sabbath be past (end)? A few verses later (Amos 8:9-10) God answers the question:
- Sundown at noon
- darkness in broad daylight
- mourning (death) of an only son.
Add up the clues, and it equals Jesus' death on the cross.
The Israelites saw the various feast days with their Sabbath regulations as an interference with commerce.
"Saying, 'When will the new moon be over, so that we may sell grain, and the sabbath, that we may open the wheat market, to make the bushel smaller and the shekel bigger, and to cheat with dishonest scales, so as to buy the helpless for money and the needy for a pair of sandals, and that we may sell the refuse of the wheat?'" (Amos 8:5-6).
But it really wasn't commerce that they were interested in. They were busy making money by doing evil. God is so upset by this callous attitude that He declares that He will never forget (Amos 8:7) and He will destroy Israel.
He then states there would come a day when the sun will go dark at noon (Mark 15:33), everyone will lament (Luke 23:48), and they will mourn as if for the passing of an only son (John 3:16). The result of the killing of Jesus was the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. Just as God promised.
Thus, ironically, God answers the wicked's groans about when the Sabbaths will end. It would end with the death of His Son (Colossians 2:14-17). But Jesus' death would not only bring the Law to an end, but it would also destroy their markets where they making dishonest money.