Hey brother,

Just had a quick question: How do you reconcile I Corinthians 14:34-35 applying women to the entire context beginning at I Corinthians 14:26 and not just the direct context of prophecy grammatically? I have been having issues with that.


"What is the outcome then, brethren? When you assemble, each one has a psalm, has a teaching, has a revelation, has a tongue, has an interpretation. Let all things be done for edification. If anyone speaks in a tongue, it should be by two or at the most three, and each in turn, and one must interpret; but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God. Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others pass judgment. But if a revelation is made to another who is seated, the first one must keep silent. For you can all prophesy one by one, so that all may learn and all may be exhorted; and the spirits of prophets are subject to prophets; for God is not a God of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints. The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says. If they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church. Was it from you that the word of God first went forth? Or has it come to you only? If anyone thinks he is a prophet or spiritual, let him recognize that the things which I write to you are the Lord's commandment. But if anyone does not recognize this, he is not recognized" (I Corinthians 14:26-38).

I Corinthians 14:26 begins an application of the principles of spiritual gifts to the worship service. Elements of the worship are to be beneficial to those present; thus, speaking in languages not understood was not to be done unless there is an interpreter present. This is an application of I Corinthians 14:16-17. Statements by a prophet are to be checked by others present for accuracy. If the Holy Spirit gives a person a prophecy, the current speaker is to yield the floor. However, women, even if they are prophetesses, are not allowed to address the assembly either in presenting a message or in passing judgment on a message being given. If they have questions about what is being taught, they are to wait until they get home (out of the public arena).

Thus, while the immediate context is about prophecy, the reason women are not allowed to prophesy in the church is because women are not allowed to speak to the assembly. Notice that both I Corinthians 14:34 and 35 both state that the rule applies in the churches. Paul used a broader rule to explain a more specific situation.


I concur with the principal and have the same belief. I am preparing to defend the position that I Corinthians 14:34-35 is part of the original manuscript and hermeneutically, it follows the context textually completely. The examples of going one at a time mentioned to prayer leaders, tongue speakers, and prophets also apply to song leaders in connection with the Greek idiom in the earlier verse on song and prayer leaders. Grammatically though, those trying to prove the addition grammatically separate it. I was seeing if you could tie it back grammatically because I am having issues with that. It’s amazing the ridiculous arguments they make.

Thanks again

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