Does I Corinthians 7:5 mean masturbation is a sin?
Question:
Hi Pastor,
Paul says that married couples should not deprive one another, but they should rather come together for intimacy. How does his reasoning work if masturbation is not a sin? Wouldn't the man and woman simply meet their own needs individually? I may be missing a way to harmonize these two ideas.
Thanks ahead,
Answer:
People tend to focus strongly on what is physically seen instead of looking at spiritual problems. For example, knives and guns are used to kill people. Does that make knives and guns sinful, or are they merely tools used to sin, and the real sin is the hatred people have for others?
A husband or wife denying their partner sex and using masturbation to satisfy their own need is sinful. But is masturbation the sin or the selfish disregard for their partner the sin? Technically, wet dreams are a form of masturbation done in your sleep. Does this also become labeled as sinful? What if a husband denies his wife sex and allows wet dreams to satisfy his need to ejaculate?
What happens when a husband is deployed for six months? I'm not saying masturbation must be used. I'm merely pointing out that a large number of males are only able to ejaculate through masturbation when their seminal vesicles get too full if they are not having sex.
Then, there is the problem of your question being focused on married men. What about single men?
What you did was take a passage that states a denial of sex is sinful and then assuming that masturbation is the cause of the denial. That isn't proper reasoning.
Response:
That’s a helpful response.
My qualm before was that because men and women could meet their own needs, perhaps the idea of depriving would no longer exist. But actually, saying masturbation is a sin does not mean it is a replacement for intimacy in marriage (like you mentioned). A Christian couple still needs to come together.
All the best to you,