Why are all nations judged when all were not involved in the oppression?
Question:
Greetings!
In Joel 3:2, why are "all nations" judged when not all nations participated in the oppressions? Or is this eschatological?
Thanks.
Answer:
"For behold, in those days and at that time, when I restore the fortunes of Judah and Jerusalem, I will gather all the nations and bring them down to the valley of Jehoshaphat. Then I will enter into judgment with them there on behalf of My people and My inheritance, Israel, whom they have scattered among the nations; and they have divided up My land" (Joel 3:1-2).
The name "Jehoshaphat" means "the Lord Judges." God allowed the nations around Israel to raid its territory, but He promised that these same nations would answer for their behavior. "All nations" is a figure of speech to call a synecdoche. "A synecdoche occurs when a part stands in for a whole, or a whole stands in for a part" ["Synecdoche," LitCharts]. It Joel, "all nations" represents all the nations involved in the oppression of Israel.
Even if you want to argue that it is literally every nation, realize that this is a judgment and those not involved would be judged "not guilty."
