If God hasn’t selected a day, why did Paul say a day was appointed for the second coming?
Question:
I was reading "If Jesus is God, how come only the Father knows of the second coming?" because I wanted to know the answer to this question, but if the Father hasn't chosen a day, what about this verse? Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead (Acts 17:31).
Please help. Thanks!
Answer:
Perhaps it is a bit clearer in Greek, though the English translation reflects it. God has appointed a day; that is, the day is certain to occur, but this verse doesn't say a certain day was preselected. In Greek to say that, you would have to say that God appointed the day. Paul is assuring the Greeks that judgment would come.
Response:
Oh! Thank you so much! That helped a lot! And thank you for your speedy answer!
