Has “that which is perfect” always been the Bible?

Question:

Hello,

I have a question regarding whether "that which is perfect" has always been the New Testament.

Before the question, let's consider some verses of Scripture,

Jas 1:25 But he who looks into the perfect law of liberty and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the work, this one will be blessed in what he does.
The New King James Version

2 Pe 1:3 as His divine power has given to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him who called us by glory and virtue
The New King James Version

First of all, the Bible's letters had immediate and remote recipients. We are the remote recipients. But looking from the perspective of the immediate recipients, what would they have thought of when James, while inspired, said, "he who looks into the perfect Law of Liberty"? There would have been no question if all that was said was "he who looks into the Law of Liberty." What was the understanding of the early Christians when they were instructed to heed the words of the perfect Law of Liberty when they did not have the perfect Law of Liberty (that is if we are maintaining the position that the perfect Law of Liberty has always been the New Testament)?

Secondly, Peter, while inspired, writes that God's divine power has given to us all things that pertain to life and godliness through the knowledge of Jesus Christ. (Please forgive me if I misinterpret the Scripture and please correct me if I do.) Now, this can be explained in our time and period as God has given us everything we need to live godly through the written words of the Bible. However, in a first-century scene, how will this Scripture be interpreted considering that their knowledge was in part and they did not have the complete word of God to guide them?

I am very grateful for your past responses and look forward to your help with these questions.

Answer:

There is something you need to keep in mind.

Throughout the Bible, when God wanted to emphasize the certainty of something that would happen in the future, He often expressed it in the past tense -- as if what was promised had already occurred. For example, when Samuel told Saul that God had selected a replacement for him due to his sin, David had not yet been born. "But now your kingdom shall not endure. The LORD has sought out for Himself a man after His own heart, and the LORD has appointed him as ruler over His people, because you have not kept what the LORD commanded you" (II Samuel 8:14). However, God has made up His mind and a replacement would be anointed. It was so certain that it could be spoken of as already having been accomplished.

James is likely one of the earliest letters to be written. The New Testament was not yet fully recorded, but James said, "But one who looks intently at the perfect law, the law of liberty, and abides by it, not having become a forgetful hearer but an effectual doer, this man will be blessed in what he does" (James 1:25). The law of liberty existed in the mind of God even though it had not yet been fully delivered to mankind. That law is perfect. While it wasn't fully delivered, what James stated about the law remains true and his statement continues to be true after the delivery was completed.

Peter's second letter was one of the later letters to be written. "Seeing that His divine power has granted to us everything pertaining to life and godliness, through the true knowledge of Him who called us by His own glory and excellence" (II Peter 1:3). God has granted us everything pertaining to life and godliness. When Peter wrote his letter, what was granted was still in the process of delivery, but completion of the delivery was certain, so it could be expressed in the past tense. I could say, "I mailed you a book that will change your life." You might not have gotten the book (the Bible) yet, but I can express my certainty of its impact on you by using the past tense.

Paul stated, "All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work" (II Timothy 3:16-17). Paul used the past tense because it is absolutely true, even when it had not been fully delivered at the time Paul made his statement.

Jude stated, "Beloved, while I was making every effort to write you about our common salvation, I felt the necessity to write to you appealing that you contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all handed down to the saints" (Jude 3). Jude's statement remains true, even while what was promised to be delivered once, for all times and all people, was still in the process of arriving.

Those reading these statements understood the certainty of God's promises and the nature of what would be delivered.

Response:

Thank you so much for your reply. It brings a new perspective to mind.

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