2.7 No Christians in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John


"The word "Christian" was not used by Jesus and his Jewish disciples under the Law of Moses in MMLJ -- before the cross. The word "Christian" is not found in MMLJ -- before the cross"


  1. Once again, we see that an argument that proves too much proves nothing. The disciples were not called “Christian” until around about the time recorded in Acts 11:26. Does that mean that those who were converted from Acts 2 to Acts 11 were not “Christians”? Surely no one would so contend. Were the ones who were “taking Jesus’ yoke and following Him” (Matthew 11:26f) going to be the ones who would enter His kingdom and later be called “Christians?” Yes, definitely. Therefore, the fact that the word “Christian” was not used before Acts 11 does nothing toward proving that MML&J were OT books. We recognize, of course, that there were no Christians converted until Pentecost (Acts 2). That is not the issue. The issue is: did Jesus reveal doctrine that applies to us today that is recorded in MML&J, and are the teachings of MML&J themselves (e.g., John 1) New Testament?
  2. The fact that the gospel Jesus had been preaching would be “preached in all the world” implies that those very words were intended to make Christians once the death, burial, resurrection, and ascension set the stage for the kingdom to come. And it also implies that they were intended to be a part of the NT that was for “all the world,” not just the Jews.

All six of the above arguments were stated on Nice-list, 10-17-98, 2:11PM, Re: Doctrinal Harmony Within The Covenants

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