Posts Tagged ‘translation’
Was Matthew only clarifying what Jesus said on the Cross?
Question: In Was Matthew originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic? you stated: This verse is one of several in Matthew which shows that Matthew was originally written in Greek. You see, if it was written in Hebrew or Aramaic as has been recently popular to claim, there would be no need to explain Hebrew or Aramaic phrases.…
Read MoreIn John 3:36, should it be “does not obey” or “does not believe”?
Question: I was linking one of my web sites to “How does obedience relate to saving faith?” which has some excellent info. “He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him” (John 3:36 NASB). I am wondering about this Scripture…
Read MoreWhy do some translations give opposite meanings to Esau’s blessing in Genesis 27:39?
Question: In the King James Version Genesis 27:39 reads “And Isaac his father answered and said unto him, Behold, thy dwelling shall be the fatness of the earth, and of the dew of heaven from above”; and some other translations such as NKJV, ASV, ERV seem to have the same meaning for this verse. However,…
Read MoreWhy does Thayer say that “world” can mean “believers only?”
Question: I have a question regarding an entry in Thayer’s Greek Lexicon that is concerning the meaning of the word “world” in John 3:16 and other passages. I submit the following entry from the Lexicon: As one of the definitions for the Greek word kosmos for “world,” it gives the following: “8b) of believers only, John 1:29;…
Read MoreWhat is meant by “although the enemy could not countervail the king’s damage”?
Question: In Esther 7:4, it reads: “For we are sold, I and my people, to be destroyed, to be slain, and to perish. But if we had been sold for bondmen and bondwomen, I had held my tongue, although the enemy could not countervail the king’s damage.” What did Esther mean when she said “although the enemy could not…
Read MoreIn Mark 3:29, why does the NKJV say “eternal condemnation” while the NASB says “eternal sin?”
Question: The NKJV in Mark 3:29 has “but is subject to eternal condemnation” and the NASB has is “guilty of an eternal sin”. Are the meanings different? They seem to mean something different. Isn’t the NASB more accurate to the original than the NKJV? Answer: Both the NASB and the NKJV are accurate translations. However,…
Read MoreIs it “away from the presence of the Lord” or “coming from the presence of the Lord” in II Thessalonians 1:9?
Question: Like always, I have a question. In II Thessalonians 1:9 it has a commentary on the bottom. The verse says, “They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might,” then in the footnotes, I found in my Bible and on Blue Letter…
Read MoreDo you have sources showing that oinos and yayin can mean both fermented and unfermented drinks?
Question: Our Baptist church is considering the elimination of the statement in the church covenant that states, “do not use or sell any alcoholic beverage”. Obviously, this is to condone moderate drinking. The basis for this is Romans 14:21. The pastor has a lexicon that shows all wine as written in the Bible means fermented. …
Read MoreMy research says that Matthew mistranslated “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?”
Question: I am sorry I am going to have to agree with the guy who questioned you on “Could Jesus have said “My God, my God, for this I was kept?”. Yeshua, the Son of God, AKA Jesus Christos, Jesus Christ spoke Aramaic and while Matthew was a Greek scholar, he merely recorded the words of…
Read MoreWhy is the Hebrew word for “bless” in Job 1:5 translated as “curse?”
Question: My Bible has a footnote on Job 1:5 that says the word “curse” in this passage is actually the Hebrew word for “bless.” I don’t understand this. Answer: “So it was, when the days of feasting had run their course, that Job would send and sanctify them, and he would rise early in the…
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