Posts Tagged ‘translation’
Why do you say Judges 11:31 is better translated as “whoever” instead of “that which?”
Question: I don’t know where you have received the understanding about Judges 11:31 because it is not coming from the text. Verse 31 uses the relative and all-purpose preposition ‘asher. Strictly translated, it means in this case “that which”. “And it will be that which is going up from the doors of my house…” Translations of “whoever”…
Read MoreWhy does Mark have “Eloi” and Matthew have “Eli” for the same statement?
Question: I believe that Matthew’s account lists Jesus’s cry from the ancient texts when he wrote “Eli, Eli lama sabachthani”. This is not a quote from Psalm 22. The Hebrew in Psalm 22 is ‘azab, not sabachthani. I’ve seen some stretches that try to link sabachthani with ‘azab, but I believe it is a bit of…
Read MoreIt’s Greek To Me
by Roger Blackwelder Some questions were raised recently about the value of having a knowledge of New Testament Greek. Some have used arguments based on the translations of words to authorize immorality that the Bible clearly condemns. This usage of Greek is disturbing; it casts a shadow on an otherwise beneficial field of study. I…
Read MoreI ran into an argument that “every lexicon” defines oinos as a fermented drink. Do you have sources to disprove this?
Question: I really appreciate the work you do as a Gospel preacher and a brother in Christ. I am in the process of studying the subject of moderate drinking with a brother in Christ, and also for myself. I have no doubt the Bible condemns it and I agree with your work 100%. However, I have…
Read MoreGreek, How Should a Knowledge of It be Viewed?
by Don Martin We do not have the original New Testament today, but manuscripts that have come down to us, copies of the original writings. What we have today is a translation or, to be more precise, about seventy extant English translations of the Greek texts. Some preachers and Christians today possess varying degrees of…
Read MoreIs the commandment “You shall not kill” or “You shall not murder”?
Question: Is the commandment “You shall not kill” or “You shall not murder”? Answer: The Hebrew word in Exodus 20:13 and Deuteronomy 5:17 is ratsach. It is not the commonly used words for killing, which are haragh (to slay) and muth (to die). Ratsach is most frequently used in Numbers 35 where rules are given to determine if the death of a…
Read MoreWhy does Psalm 104:8 read so differently in different translations?
Question: I have an interesting question. In the NIV it says. they flowed over the mountains, they went down into the valleys, to the place you assigned for them. Psalm 104:8 NIV But in another version it says Mountains rose and valleys sank to the levels you decreed. Psalm 104:8 NLT Do they mean the…
Read MoreWhat is the meaning of the biblical word “korah?”
Question: What is the meaning of the biblical word “korah?” Answer: Korah is a proper name in Hebrew. Like most names, it is used without reference to its direct meaning. Such is still done today. My name is “Jeffrey,” but few use the word for its original meaning “at peace with God.” Scholars believe Korah…
Read MoreAren’t Acts 2:38 and Matthew 26:28 different in some Greek texts?
Question: I read your Acts 2:38 in comparison to Matthew 26:28. Problem is the King James version agrees it’s the same in Greek, but the Nestle makes it more personal where it could read “for the remission of your sins”. Even though I don’t think that matters because it makes it more personal with the…
Read MoreWhy wasn’t Jesus named Immanuel?
Question: I have another question from my studies involving Isaiah: “Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel” (Isaiah 7:14). How is it that Jesus was not named Immanuel? Is this a contradiction? Also, I’ve heard that virgin is…
Read MoreDoes the word “forever” in Ecclesiastes 1:4 mean “everlasting?”
Question: Does the word “forever” in Ecclesiastes 1:4 means “everlasting?” Answer: “One generation passes away, and another generation comes; but the earth abides forever” (Ecclesiastes 1:4). The Hebrew word ‘owlam refers to something that is of a long, indefinite period. It is a period of time which you cannot say for certainty when it comes to an end. To…
Read MoreI think your translation of Nicolaitan is incorrect
Question: I did some research recently and I found your translation of the word “Nicolaitan” from the Greek to be incorrect. From your incorrect translation comes further assumptions which logically begin a continued false set of observations and conclusions. I am not trying to be difficult, merely bring to your attention that your answer needs to…
Read MoreIn Mark 5:19, the word is “house” not “people.”
Question: In the article “How Do They Do That?” you stated: One of these cities was Decapolis. Just outside the town, Jesus freed a man possessed by demons. The man wanted to follow Jesus, but instead, Jesus tells him to go and preach what he has learned to his people (Mark 5:19-20). Look closely at…
Read MoreWhy are the New Testament quotes of the Old Testament different?
Question: How would you punctuate Isaiah 40:3? How do the authors of the New Testament get Isaiah 40:3 wrong? Answer: “The voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the LORD; make straight in the desert a highway for our God'” (Isaiah 40:3). “For this is he who was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah,…
Read MoreWhy is YWHW translated LORD?
Question: I know the New World Translation is not a reliable translation, but why have the other Bible translations changed the original YHWH to LORD? Answer: When a translator encounters a word, he is faced with two choices: he can translate the word or he can transliterate the word. To translate requires finding a word…
Read MoreWhat is the meaning of “Hebron”?
Question: I need research information on the meaning of “Hebron”: one meaning a place where we learn to relate to people, not on the basis of what they do for us, but in recognition of God’s work in bringing us together. Answer: Hebron is most noted as a city located south of Jerusalem. Numbers 13:22 tells us…
Read MoreWhy did the people think Jesus was calling for Elijah?
Question: In regards to Matthew 27:46: if the translation is as reported in the text, how come the bystanders thought he was calling for Elijah? It seems like the translation given in the text does not coincide with the bystanders’ reaction to our Lord’s words. Are they misinterpreting? Answer: “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried…
Read MoreDoes the phrase “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani” have a different meaning in Aramaic than in the Greek?
Question: I would like to comment on the use of Aramaic in Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani. It’s not the Greek word and its meaning that’s in question or the crux of the argument. The Aramaic is the problem. The Aramaic word that the Greek word was translated from was supposed to have more than one meaning…
Read MoreHow many horsemen did David kill?
Question: II Samuel 8:4 — 1,700 horsemen I Chronicles 18:4 — 7,000 horsemen Are these two passages related to each other? Why the discrepancy? Answer: The two passages do deal with the same event, but they are worded differently. The following is taken from the New King James Version: “David took from him one thousand chariots,…
Read MoreIs “hell” a proper translation of “Gehenna”?
Question: The word Hell like the word baptism is not really a proper translation is it? I looked up the word hell and it is Gehenna, and Gehenna is a place, Originally the Valley of Hinnom, near Jerusalem (ISBE). So it would be helpful to use Gehenna instead of hell, just as I find it…
Read MoreDoes Matthew 3:11 show that eis can be translated “because of”?
Question: If the Greek word “eis” (“for” in English) is always forward-looking, then what about Matthew 3:11? Here it says that John baptized for repentance, but the repentance would have had to have come before the baptism. After all, Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3 states John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance. Therefore, “eis” can be “because of” in Acts 2:38.…
Read MoreCould Jesus have said, “My God, my God, for this I was kept?”
Question: I found an article stating that Jesus’ words in Matthew 27:46 should have been translated, “My God, my God, for this I was kept!” Is there any basis for this claim? Answer: And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?” that is, “My God, My God, why…
Read MoreCan the Greek word translated “himself” in James 1:27 also be translated “themselves”?
Question: While reading a book by Basil Overton, I ran across this argument, “Some have argued that the church cannot help orphans but the individual Christians must do this. They say James 1:27 is addressed to the ‘individual. James 1:27 is not addressed to the individual. “Himself” of the text is a third person pronoun.…
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