languages – La Vista Church of Christ https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms Sun, 14 Sep 2025 01:58:33 +0000 en hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=7.1.2 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/cropped-LaVistaBanner-Copy-1-32x32.png languages – La Vista Church of Christ https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms 32 32 157465916 How come the Ethiopians and the Canaanites speak Semitic languages https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/how-come-the-ethiopians-and-the-canaanites-speak-semitic-languages/ Sun, 14 Sep 2025 01:55:57 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=90477

Question:

How come the Ethiopians (Cush) and the Canaanites both descend from Ham, yet speak a Semitic language?

Thank you.

Answer:

When God divided mankind's language, nothing is stated about how that division took place. Nothing says all of Ham's descendants spoke related languages. Linguists group similar languages. Thus, Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, Amharic, and many other languages are considered to be in the group of Semitic languages.

As populations grew and people blended with their neighbors, languages also started to blend. For example, most of South America speaks forms of Spanish, but the people who lived there before the arrival of the Spaniards did not speak languages similar to Spanish. This could happen in many places as people move around.

Ethiopia has over 77 local languages. Oromo is the most commonly spoken language. Amharic is the language chosen for government documents. Amharic is considered to be in the Semitic family of languages. Recall that the eunuch who was Queen Candice's treasurer came from Ethiopia. He was a Jewish proselyte. There were also frequent ties between Ethiopia and Israel mentioned in the Old Testament, so it isn't surprising that the language is similar in some groups.

The Edomites, Moabites, Ammonites, Amorites, Amelekites, and the Arabs all descend from Abraham, so it is not surprising that their languages were similar. Abraham originated in Ur in Mesopotamia, so there would be other family groups speaking similar languages.

]]> 90477 Thank you for your well-done reply to “The New Testament was written in Hebrew, not Greek” https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/thank-you-for-your-well-done-reply-to-the-new-testament-was-written-in-hebrew-not-greek/ Wed, 12 Jan 2022 15:16:06 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=41854

Question:

Thank you for your biblical reply on your website in "The New Testament was written in Hebrew, not Greek!". Well done! It's encouraging that your church focuses on feeding the spiritually malnourished American flock.

Answer:

We're glad to be of service to others.

]]> 41854 Uncommon Courtesy https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/uncommon-courtesy/ Sat, 11 Jul 2020 00:55:21 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=23775

Text: Romans 15:1-6

 

I.         Sometimes I have to wonder what happened to common courtesy. The phrase needs to be changed because it seem common courtesy has become uncommon.

            A.        Courtesy is “the showing of politeness in one's attitude and behavior toward others”

                        1.         It comes from a French word meaning “courtly ideals; chivalry, chivalrous conduct; elegance of manners, politeness”

            B.        It used to be a subject taught to young people.

                        1.         I found list of “Rules of Civility and Decent Behavior in Company and Conversation” that George Washington had copied at the age of 16.

                                    a.         Rule 35: “Let your discourse with men of business be short and comprehensive.”

                                                (1)       In other words, when you speak be concise

                                                (2)       Reminds me of Proverbs 17:27-28

                                    b.         Rule 40: “Strive not with your superiors in argument, but always submit your judgment to others with modesty.”

                                                (1)       See I Peter 2:18 and Proverbs 25:15

                                    c.         Rule 44: “When a man does all he can though it succeeds not we blame not him that did it.”

                                                (1)       In other words, when a person does his best and fails, don’t criticize him.

                                                (2)       Romans 15:2;5 - We ought to encourage others

                                    d.         Rule 45: “Being to advise or reprehend anyone, consider whether it ought to be in public or in private; presently, or at some other time; in what terms to do it and in reproving show no sign of choler but do it with all sweetness and mildness.”

                                                (1)       In other words, when giving advice or criticism, consider where, when, and how it should be given. Don’t show yourself to be peevish but kind and gentle.

                                                (2)       Proverbs 15:23; 25:11

                                    e.         Rule 47: “Mock not nor jest at anything of importance, break no jest that are sharp biting, and if you deliver anything witty and pleasant abstain from laughing thereat yourself.”

                                                (1)       In other words, don’t make fun of anything that is important to other people, don’t tell jokes that hurt other people, and don’t laugh at your own jokes.

                                                (2)       Proverbs 15:28; James 3:17

                        2.         What do you notice about these samples?

                                    a.         They apply the ideas that you consider others more important than self - Philippians 2:3-4

                                    b.         They emphasize treating others as you would like to be treated - Matthew 7:12

II.        A love for people

            A.        When Paul traveled as a prisoner, he was treated courteously - Acts 27:1,3

            B.        The problem of selfishness

                        1.         Alexander Campbell once noted, “A selfish person is always impolite, ungentlemanly and unchristian in his manners.”

                        2.         Within every rude man is a selfish spirit.

                        3.         Our earlier read of Philippians 2:3 we are to do nothing from selfishness or conceit.

                        4.         It leads to so many other problems - II Corinthians 12:20

            C.        Learning to be polite, then, first starts with examining how we value other people

            D.        When we sooth others, we improve their lives - Proverbs 15:4

III.       Learning courtesy

            A.        Good habits are best established from a young age - Proverbs 22:6

                        1.         Even if someone isn’t taught politeness as a child, he will be forced into learning it. You can get far in business without some degree of manners.

            B.        Older people understand that politeness costs you nothing and gains you much

                        1.         The righteous know what is acceptable - Proverbs 10:32

                        2.         Young people often make the mistake of thinking that the way to excel and move forward is to tear down everything around you until you are the only one left.

                        3.         Older people realize that everyone benefits when each person is encouraged to reach his highest potential - Ecclesiastes 10:12

            C.        We need to curb the impulse to respond as others respond to us - Proverbs 15:1

IV.      Teaching courtesy

            A.        And if we are going to teach others, we will succeed through courteous speech - Proverbs 16:21-24

            B.        Set the example for others - I Peter 5:5

                        1.         You won’t see an immediate change, but over time your friends will notice there is a difference between the way they are treated by others and the way you are treated.

                        2.         Then they will see you as someone worth imitating - I Timothy 4:12

V.        God is watching

            A.        God is aware of everything we say - Proverbs 15:3

            B.        We will be judged by even our idle words - Matthew 12:36

            C.        Will courtesy become more common in your life?

]]> 23775 Did Israel all speak the same language? https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/did-israel-all-speak-the-same-language/ Tue, 03 Sep 2019 21:33:23 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=9012

Question:

Was Israel of one language? Did the nation of Israel all speak the same language? Thank you.

Answer:

Israelites spoke Hebrew. After the captivity, Aramaic was spoke a good bit and portions of the Old Testament are written in Aramaic. During Jesus' day, Aramaic was the common language and Hebrew was the "religious" language, so all Jews could speak both Hebrew and Aramaic. "Spoken in ancient times in Palestine, Hebrew was supplanted by the western dialect of Aramaic beginning about the 3rd century BC; the language continued to be used as a liturgical and literary language, however." ["Hebrew Language," Encyclopedia Britannica].

"A Short History of the Hebrew Language" by Jeff A. Benner makes for a good read on this topic.

]]> 9012 What was the original language? https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/what-was-the-original-language/ Fri, 20 Apr 2012 02:57:00 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=32593

Question:

Hi,

I'm a part of the church of Christ and have found this site to be on point. I have grown very much in Christ and I'm having the time of my life obeying our God. I just had to say all that because it feels good to preach and teach about God, Jesus Christ, and the Holy Spirit.

My question is: before the tower of Babel, what language did everyone speak because the Bible says that the earth spoke one language?

It's so funny when I address this question to evolutionists because they get flustered and tell me to go ask linguists but even linguists do not even know or when I tell them the Bible has an explanation for all the languages today but the world does not.

Well, thank you for the time, and may God continue to bless you and the good work you do.

Answer:

At one time, everyone spoke a single language. "Now the whole earth had one language and one speech" (Genesis 11:1). It makes sense since everyone descended from Adam and Eve and even in the years after the flood, everyone descended from Noah. Man's language would not have changed.

While we often give names because of their sound, the ancients picked names because of their meaning. Since all the names in the table of nations in Genesis 10 and 11 only have meaning in Hebrew, we can conclude that Hebrew was probably the original language.

]]> 32593 Why does the Bible contain impolite phrases? https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/why-does-the-bible-contain-impolite-phrases/ Tue, 09 Mar 2010 01:24:00 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=22119

Question:

I was always taught from a small child by my Christian parents, not to say bad words; yet, I noticed in I Samuel 25:22,34; I Kings 14:10; 16:11; 21:21; and II Kings 9:8 that the writer used these types of words.  Could you tell me what this means?

Answer:

Terms that are concerned polite or acceptable change between cultures and between time periods. The words used just a hundred years ago to refer to people with dark skin coloration are now considered so derogatory today that a politician using such words would be marched out of office. I'm sure some American expressions, such as "kicking a dead horse," might sound offensive if literally translated into another language and culture.

The phrase used in the verses you listed is mashtin beqir in the Hebrew. It literally means "one urinating on a wall." It is an idiom for a male because males are able to do this while females cannot. In particular, it is a trait of male dogs as well as human males. The King James translators wrote the idiom as worded into English, but you will find that almost all modern versions will translate it as "man" or "male."

When David said, "So and more also do God unto the enemies of David, if I leave of all that pertain to him by the morning light any that pisseth against the wall" (I Samuel 25:22 - KJV), the phrasing is not profanity. He is saying that he will not leave one male, even down to the dogs, alive by morning. Some translators suggested saying "if I leave him even one dog by dawn," but this doesn't capture what is being said very well since dogs can be male and female and the focus is actually on humans and not animals. Some others suggest "if I leave him one man by dawn," but this could be seen as leaving out the animals and the boys. Most say something like, "if I leave one male of all who belong to him by morning light." This captures the broadness of the phrase without sounding offensive in modern-day English. You might miss the completeness of what David is saying, that is that he won't even leave one male dog alive, but it retains the focus on the humans with whom he is angry.

]]> 22119 Can a married couple talk dirty during sex? https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/can-a-married-couple-talk-dirty-during-sex/ Sun, 14 Feb 2010 03:11:00 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=21999

Question:

Hi,

I have read through a lot of your Answered Questions and wanted to throw one out at you. Do you think it's improper for a married Christian couple to "talk dirty" during sex, using words and language they would ordinarily not use in daily conversation? (If no one else is around and the intent of the language is just to make the sexual experience more enjoyable.) I am curious to see your thoughts.

Thank you.

Answer:

Discussing intimate details regarding sex is not one we reserve for open discussion. "And those members of the body which we think to be less honorable, on these we bestow greater honor; and our unpresentable parts have greater modesty" (I Corinthians 12:23). But a private discussion regarding sex would be natural between a husband and wife who are learning each other's bodies and enjoying them.

When you read the Song of Solomon, you find several beautiful descriptions between Solomon and his wife (Song of Solomon 4:1-5:1; 5:10-16; 7:1-9; 7:11-8:3). The terms uplift and praise the focus of the one loved and enjoyed.

However, when one speaks of "talking dirty" it carries the idea of degrading references to things that ought to be held in respect. God clearly tells His children, "But shun profane and idle babblings, for they will increase to more ungodliness" (II Timothy 2:16). To profane something is to pollute or defile it, like trash being tossed in a park. It is the wicked, not God's children who are profane (I Timothy 1:9). If this wasn't clear enough, God tells us not to engage in filthy talk. "But fornication and all uncleanness or covetousness, let it not even be named among you, as is fitting for saints; neither filthiness, nor foolish talking, nor coarse jesting, which are not fitting, but rather giving of thanks" (Ephesians 5:3-4).

There isn't an exception given to husbands and wives. The opposite should be true. Their love and respect for each other ought to demand that they never degrade even the most intimate parts of their union.

]]> 21999 What are the definitions of “foolish talk” and “coarse jesting?” https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/what-are-the-definitions-of-foolish-talk-and-coarse-jesting/ Wed, 03 Jun 2009 02:28:00 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=18974

Question:

Ephesians 5:4 says that "neither ... foolish talking nor jesting" ought to be found among the saints.  However, I have had difficulty coming to the precise meanings of these words, or maybe I am afraid to.  I see on your web site that you, and most others, define "foolish talking" as sinful or tasteless talk, for example, dead baby jokes, and that "jesting" is vulgar double-entendre.   However, I have seen several commentators and web sites claim that "foolish talking" means any conversation that does not edify (Wesley's commentary) and that "jesting" means wit or humor of any sort (Hodge's commentary among others), or at least wit.  One rationale is that, when a Christian uses humor, he destroys his credibility as a potential witness.  What are the meanings of these words?

Answer:

"But fornication and all uncleanness or covetousness, let it not even be named among you, as is fitting for saints; neither filthiness, nor foolish talking, nor coarse jesting, which are not fitting, but rather giving of thanks. For this you know, that no fornicator, unclean person, nor covetous man, who is an idolater, has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God" (Ephesians 5:3-6).

Filthiness (aichrotes)
"filthiness, ugliness, baseness, indecency, wickedness."
"'Filthiness' (obscenity) literally means 'filthy language.'"
Foolish Talking (morologia)
"foolish talk, silly talk"
"The term is used by nonbiblical writers for 'silly talk' in general, such as might come from the mouth of one who is weak of intellect, or even intoxicated."
"'Foolish talking' is talk that is characteristic of fools, people literally with 'empty heads.'"
Coarse Jesting (eutrapelia)
"Indecent or vulgar jesting, improper jokes"
In classical Greek, the word meant being quick-witted, sharp, or witty, but as time progressed the word took on more negative connotations. Aristotle used this word for humor that was somewhere between buffoonery and boorishness. By the days of the New Testament, it was used to refer to indecent or off-color jokes.

Quotes from The Complete Biblical Library.

No disrespect for the commentators you cite, but they broadened the definitions too far. Their definition would condemn Elijah's taunting of the false prophets when he encouraged them to cry louder, "Cry aloud, for he is a god; either he is meditating, or he is busy, or he is on a journey, or perhaps he is sleeping and must be awakened" (I Kings 18:27). As Solomon noted, there is "a time to weep, and a time to laugh" (Ecclesiastes 3:4). The Bible has numerous uses of subtle puns and other forms of humor. Therefore, it is wrong to conclude that all forms of humor are condemned. If Jesus can use humorous descriptions of a man helping to get a speck of dust out of a friend's eye while having a plank in his own eye (Matthew 7:3-5), then we can conclude that humor has its place in the teaching of others.

It is true that God pays attention to everything we say, including the things we blurt out without thinking. "But I say to you that for every idle word men may speak, they will give account of it in the day of judgment. For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned" (Matthew 12:36-37). Thus we are careful what we say. "Let no corrupt word proceed out of your mouth, but what is good for necessary edification, that it may impart grace to the hearers" (Ephesians 4:29). Please note, though that Paul isn't saying that we can't chat about last night's ball game -- though there might be a problem if that is all you were willing to discuss with someone. Rather, Paul is saying that we should not be talking to people just to tear them down. The purpose of our conversations is to build people up, to make them better people. Exchanging pleasantries is a part of a proper conversation.

Besides, the context in which Paul warns against these types of speech tells us that he was primarily referring to improper joking around concerning sexual matters and unclean thoughts because they would leave the hearer with the wrong impression regarding the Christian's life.

]]> 18974 Can you say more about Aramaic being used in the Bible? https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/can-you-say-more-about-aramaic-being-used-in-the-bible/ Fri, 13 Jul 2007 03:06:14 +0000 https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/cms/?p=10844

Question:

I have a question concerning the two words, Arabic and Aramaic. In one of your most recent answers, you spoke about Aramaic being used in the Bible, but not Arabic. What is the difference between the two words? I understand that Arabic would be spoken by Arabian peoples, so where does Aramaic come from? I do know Greek was spoken by Jesus, did He also use Aramaic? And was the Hebrew language becoming obsolete during Jesus's time here on earth?

Answer:

Arabic is a language spoken by those from Arabia, of which there are numerous dialects. Aramaic is a language spoken by the people in the region of Aram, which is just north of Israel. Modern-day Syria is in this region.

Aramaic is very similar to Hebrew. When the Israelites were carried off into captivity, many of them began to pick up and use Aramaic. Some parts of the Bible are written in Aramaic: Genesis 31:47; Ezra 4:6-6:18; 7:12-26; Jeremiah 10:11; and Daniel 2:4-7:28. A few of the spoken words in the Gospel and some of the place names are recorded in Aramaic, indicating that it was frequently spoken in Jesus' day. With the rise of the Assyrian, and later the Babylonia Empires, Aramaic became the "universal" language. That is, many people spoke their native language and also Aramaic. Thus, if you wanted to do business with people of other nations, you often did it in Aramaic. Later, Greek became the common language. Today, English is used in a similar way.

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